Verified CPIM-8.0 &As - Provide CPIM-8.0 with Correct Answers [Q30-Q45]

Verified CPIM-8.0 Exam Dumps Q&As - Provide CPIM-8.0 with Correct Answers

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NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following criteria is used to determine safety stock in a distribution center (DC)?

• A. Economic order quantity(EOQ)
• B. Probability of stocking out
• C. Alpha factor level
• D. Seasonal index value

Answer: B

Explanation:
The probability of stocking out is the likelihood that the demand for an item will exceed the available inventory during a given period. It is one of the criteria used to determine safety stock in a distribution center (DC), as safety stock is inventory that is carried to protect against forecast errors and fluctuations in demand or supply. The higher the probability of stocking out, the more safety stock is needed to avoid customer dissatisfaction and lost sales. The other criteria are not directly related to safety stock. Economic order quantity (EOQ) is the order quantity that minimizes the total inventory holding and ordering costs. Seasonal index value is a measure of how demand varies according to different seasons or periods. Alpha factor level is a parameter used in exponential smoothing to adjust the forecast based on the error between the actual and forecasted demand. References: Safety Stock: A Contingency Plan to Keep Supply Chains Flying High, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM

NEW QUESTION # 31
An support technician is contacted by an imposter claiming to be a supervisor and is asked specifically to perform a task that violates the organization's security policies. What type of attack is this?

• A. Spear phishing
• B. Spoofing
• C. Piggybacking
• D. Insider threat

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 32
An organization has a legacy application used in production. Security updates are no longer provided, which makes the legacy application vulnerable. The legacy application stores Social Security numbers and credit card numbers. Which actions will BEST reduce the risk?

• A. Implement compensating controls and prioritize upgrading the application
• B. Continue to operate and monitor the application until it is no longer needed
• C. Submit a security exception for the application and remove it from vulnerability scanning
• D. Report to the privacy officer and increase logging and monitoring of the application

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 33
One of the most useful tools for analyzing the sustainable footprint is:

• A. ISO 9000.
• B. process mapping.
• C. SWOT analysis.
• D. lean six sigma.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Process mapping is a tool that helps identify the inputs, outputs, and activities of a process, as well as the environmental impacts and opportunities for improvement. Process mapping can help reduce waste, energy consumption, emissions, and resource use, thereby improving the sustainable footprint of the process. Therefore, option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because lean six sigma is a methodology that combines lean principles and six sigma tools to eliminate waste and variation, but it does not necessarily focus on sustainability. Option C is incorrect because SWOT analysis is a tool that evaluates the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of a business or a project, but it does not specifically analyze the environmental aspects. Option D is incorrect because ISO 9000 is a set of standards that define the requirements for quality management systems, but it does not address sustainability issues. Reference: CPIM Part 2 Exam Content Manual, Version 8.0, Section H: Quality, Continuous Improvement, and Technology, Subsection H.4: Sustainability, p. 86.

NEW QUESTION # 34
An organization's security assessment recommended expanding its secure software development framework to include testing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products before deploying those products in production.
What is the MOST likely reason for this recommendation?

• A. To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment
• B. To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the user acceptance testing
• C. To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment
• D. To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the trial run of the software

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

• A. Weighted moving average
• B. Computer simulation
• C. Econometric models
• D. Time series decomposition

Answer: D

Explanation:
Time series decomposition is a method that breaks down a time series of historical demand data into its components: trend, seasonality, cyclical, and random. It is appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history, as it can isolate and estimate these components and project them into the future. Time series decomposition can also handle cyclical and random variations in demand, and it can be applied to different time intervals (such as monthly, quarterly, or yearly). The other methods are not suitable for this scenario. Econometric models are complex mathematical models that use regression analysis to relate demand to various explanatory variables, such as price, income, or advertising. They are not designed to capture trend and seasonality in demand. Computer simulation is a technique that uses a computer program to mimic the behavior of a real system under different scenarios and assumptions. It is not a forecasting method per se, but rather a tool for testing and evaluating different forecasting methods or policies. Weighted moving average is a simple method that uses the average of the most recent observations as the forecast for the next period, with more weight given to the recent observations than the older ones. It is not able to capture trend and seasonality in demand, as it assumes that demand is stable and does not change over time. References: Time Series Decomposition | APICS Dictionary Term of the Day, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM

NEW QUESTION # 36
Long lead-time items with stable demand would best be supported by a supply chain:

• A. positioning inventory close to the consumer.
• B. using a pull system.
• C. designed to be responsive.
• D. linked through an enterprise resources planning (ERP) system.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Long lead-time items with stable demand are best supported by a supply chain that positions inventory close to the consumer. This reduces the risk of stockouts and improves customer service levels. It also allows the supply chain to buffer against demand variability and supply disruptions. Positioning inventory close to the consumer is a form of postponement strategy, where the final assembly or customization of products is delayed until the customer order is received12. Reference: EXAM CONTENT MANUAL PREVIEW, page 9, section 3.1.2. [Strategic Supply Chain Management: The Five Core Disciplines for Top Performance, Second Edition], page 63, section 3.2.

NEW QUESTION # 37
Given the following data, calculate the appropriate takt time:

• A. 1 minute
• B. 0.25 minutes
• C. 2 minutes
• D. 4 minutes

Answer: A

Explanation:
Takt time is the rate at which a product should be produced to meet customer demand. It is calculated by dividing the available production time by the customer demand. In this case, the available production time is
10 hours per day, and the customer demand is 2,400 units per day. Converting 10 hours to minutes gives us
600 minutes of production time per day. So, takt time = 600 minutes / 2400 units = 0.25 minutes per unit.
However, this is not one of the answer choices, so we need to look for more information or context.
According to the CPIM Part 1 Study Guide, takt time is usually rounded up to the nearest whole number to allow for some buffer time and to simplify the calculation. Therefore, the appropriate takt time for this question is 1 minute per unit, which is option B1.
References := 1 CPIM Part 1 Study Guide, page 77

NEW QUESTION # 38
A traffic analysis on an organization's network identifies a significant degree of inefficient resource use as a result of broadcast traffic. The organization wants to reduce the scope of the broadcasts without impeding the flow of traffic. Which of the following devices is the BEST choice to implement to achieve this goal?

• A. Router
• B. Switch
• C. Proxy
• D. Firewall

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 39
The primary consideration In maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supply systems typically is:

• A. stockout costs.
• B. shelf life.
• C. carrying costs.
• D. order quantity.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supply systems are essential for ensuring the availability and reliability of equipment and infrastructure used in production processes. MRO supplies include items such as spare parts, tools, lubricants, cleaning materials, and safety equipment. The primary consideration in MRO supply systems typically is stockout costs, which are the costs incurred when an item is not available when needed. Stockouts can cause production delays, equipment breakdowns, customer dissatisfaction, and lost sales opportunities. Therefore, it is important to maintain adequate inventory levels of MRO supplies to avoid stockouts and ensure uninterrupted operations. Order quantity, carrying costs, and shelf life are also important factors in MRO supply systems, but they are not the primary consideration. Order quantity is the amount of MRO supplies ordered at a time, which affects the ordering costs and the inventory levels. Carrying costs are the costs of holding MRO supplies in inventory, which include storage, handling, insurance, and obsolescence costs. Shelf life is the period of time that MRO supplies can be stored before they expire or deteriorate, which affects the inventory turnover and the waste disposal costs. These factors need to be balanced with the stockout costs to optimize the MRO supply systems. Reference:
CPIM Part 2 Study Guide, Chapter 6: Inventory Management, Section 6.3: Inventory Management for Independent Demand Items What is maintenance, repair and operations | IBM, Section: Why should you care about MRO?
Maintenance, Repair, and Operations/Overhaul (MRO) - A Complete Guide, Section: Understanding MRO

NEW QUESTION # 40
An organization has to conduct quarterly reviews of user authorization access to its primary financial application. Which position is responsible for performing these reviews?

• A. Data owner
• B. Data custodian
• C. Internal audit manager
• D. Information Security Manager (ISM)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 41
Fishbone diagrams would help a service organization determine:

• A. the source of a quality-of-service issue.
• B. the proper level of service for a customer segment.
• C. differences in the performance of employees.
• D. the decomposition of customer return rates with seasonality.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Fishbone diagrams would help a service organization determine the source of a quality-of-service issue. A fishbone diagram, also known as a cause-and-effect diagram or an Ishikawa diagram, is a tool for identifying and analyzing the root causes of a problem or an effect. It uses a fish-shaped diagram to display the potential causes of a problem in different categories, such as people, processes, equipment, environment, etc. A fishbone diagram can help a service organization to determine the source of a quality-of-service issue by allowing the organization to brainstorm and organize the possible factors that may affect the quality of the service delivered to the customers, such as staff training, customer feedback, service standards, equipment maintenance, etc. A fishbone diagram can also help the organization to prioritize and test the most likely causes, and to develop and implement solutions to improve the quality of service12. References: 1 What is a Fishbone Diagram? Ishikawa Cause & Effect Diagram | ASQ 3 2 CPIM Exam References - Association for Supply Chain Management 1

NEW QUESTION # 42
A department manager executes threat modeling at the beginning of a project and throughout its lifecycle.
What type of threat modeling is being performed?

• A. Proactive threat modeling
• B. Threat modeling assessment
• C. Risk assessment
• D. Reactive threat modeling

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 43
The project manager has updated the project steering committee that a security vulnerability was found after applying the system security baseline, and remediation has been completed to close the vulnerability. What is the BEST next step for the project?

• A. Update the security baseline and continue with the next project task.
• B. Obtain approval from the project steering, committee to revise the system security baseline.
• C. Create a change request for the system baseline revision.
• D. Proceed with the next project task to meet the project deadlines.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 44
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) allows for scanning a statistical sample of the environment without scanning the full environment. Scanning a statistical sample has many advantages and disadvantages.
Which of the following is the MOST accurate set of advantages and disadvantages?

• A. Limited risk to production targets, rapid scan times, requires proof of image standardization, and one- offs systems are not scanned
• B. Limited to a single environment/platform, proves image standardization, random selection misses end- to-end applications, and slower than targeted scanning
• C. Easy for auditors to question, fastest scanning method, ideal for cloud environments, and not suitable for small organizations
• D. Confirmation of Configuration Management (CM), hand selection introduces confirmation bias, is ideal in operational technology environments, and requires about 10% of each environment/platform

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 45
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APICS CPIM-8.0 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Detailed Schedules: This section assesses the skills of Production Planners by focusing on detailed scheduling processes for production or service delivery environments. It includes methods like PAC (Programmable Automation Controller) scheduling techniques to manage detailed production timelines efficiently across different materials required for manufacturing or service delivery processes.
Topic 2	Supply Chains and Strategy: This section of the exam measures the skills of Supply Chain Managers and covers various aspects related to supply chains, including their interaction with the environment and strategic objectives. It delves into developing organizational strategies, functional strategies, performance monitoring using KPIs, risk management, capital equipment management, and sustainability strategies. A key skill assessed here is "analyzing market trends."
Topic 3	Demand: This section evaluates the abilities of Demand Analysts in managing demand through forecasting techniques. It explores sources of demand data for accurate forecasting and evaluating forecast performance to improve future predictions. One important skill evaluated is "forecasting demand accurately."
Topic 4	Sales and Operations Planning: This module assesses the skills of Operations Planners in terms of sales and operations planning processes. It includes understanding the purpose of S&OP, creating aggregate demand plans, and reconciling these plans to ensure alignment between sales forecasts and operational capabilities. A crucial skill measured is "reconciling supply-demand gaps."
Topic 5	Quality, Technology, and Continuous Improvement: This section assesses skills of Quality Assurance Specialists, focusing on quality assurance methodologies enhanced by technology to drive continuous improvement efforts. A key skill measured here is "enhancing quality metrics."
Topic 6	Supply: This module tests the competencies of Procurement Specialists in managing supply chains effectively. It involves creating master schedules for production planning, maintaining these schedules over time, material requirements planning (MRP), capacity requirements planning (CRP), supplier management practices, and purchasing strategies during product life cycle changes. A key skill measured here is "validating master schedules."

 

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