Certification Training for CCSP Exam Dumps Test Engine [2024]
May 14, 2024 Step by Step Guide to Prepare for CCSP Exam
To be eligible for the CCSP exam, candidates must have a minimum of five years of experience in IT, with at least three years in information security and one year in cloud computing. Additionally, candidates must have a valid (ISC)² SSCP or CISSP certification. The CCSP certification is valid for three years, after which candidates must earn Continuing Professional Education (CPE) credits to maintain their certification.
The CCSP certification is ideal for IT professionals, security professionals, and cloud computing professionals who are interested in enhancing their knowledge of cloud security. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is also suitable for professionals who are responsible for managing cloud environments, such as cloud architects, cloud consultants, and cloud engineers.
ISC CCSP (Certified Cloud Security Professional) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification that validates an individual's expertise in cloud security. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification is designed for professionals who have experience in cloud computing and are responsible for designing, implementing, managing, and securing cloud-based solutions. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification exam covers a broad range of topics, including cloud architecture, data security, compliance, risk management, and legal issues related to cloud computing.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Data centers have enormous power resources that are distributed and consumed throughout the entire facility.
Which of the following standards pertains to the proper fire safety standards within that scope?
- A. NFPA
- B. Uptime Institute
- C. IDCA
- D. BICSI
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) publishes a broad range of fire safety and design standards for many different types of facilities. Building Industry Consulting Services International (BICSI) issues certifications for data center cabling. The Uptime Institute publishes the most widely known and used standard for data center topologies and tiers. The International Data Center Authority (IDCA) offers the Infinity Paradigm, which takes a macro-level approach to data center design.
NEW QUESTION # 87
A main objective for an organization when utilizing cloud services is to avoid vendor lock-in so as to ensure flexibility and maintain independence.
Which core concept of cloud computing is most related to vendor lock-in?
- A. Interoperability
- B. Portability
- C. Scalability
- D. Reversibility
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Portability is the ability for a cloud customer to easily move their systems, services, and applications among different cloud providers. By avoiding reliance on proprietary APIs and other vendor-specific cloud features, an organization can maintain flexibility to move among the various cloud providers with greater ease. Reversibility refers to the ability for a cloud customer to quickly and easy remove all their services and data from a cloud provider. Interoperability is the ability to reuse services and components for other applications and uses. Scalability refers to the ability of a cloud environment to add or remove resources to meet current demands.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following types of data would fall under data rights management (DRM) rather than information rights management (IRM)?
- A. Personnel data
- B. Security profiles
- C. Financial records
- D. Publications
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Whereas IRM is used to protect a broad range of data, DRM is focused specifically on the protection of consumer media, such as publications, music, movies, and so on. IRM is used to protect general institution data, so financial records, personnel data, and security profiles would all fall under the auspices of IRM.
NEW QUESTION # 89
What is used with a single sign-on system for authentication after the identity provider has successfully authenticated a user?
Response:
- A. Key
- B. XML
- C. Token
- D. SAML
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 90
Apart from using encryption at the file system level, what technology is the most widely used to protect data stored in an object storage system?
- A. TLS
- B. IRM
- C. HTTPS
- D. VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information rights management (IRM) technologies allow security controls and policies to be enforced on a data object regardless of where it resides. They also allow for extended controls such as expirations and copying restrictions, which are not available through traditional control mechanisms. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), virtual private network (VPN), and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies and protocols that are widely used with cloud implementations for secure access to systems and services and likely will be used in conjunction with other object data protection strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 91
An SLA contains the official requirements for contract performance and satisfaction between the cloud provider and cloud customer. Which of the following would NOT be a component with measurable metrics and requirements as part of an SLA?
- A. CPU
- B. Network
- C. Users
- D. Memory
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Dealing with users or user access would not be an appropriate item for inclusion in an SLA specifically.
However, user access and user experience would be covered indirectly through other metrics. Memory, CPU, and network resources are all typically included within an SLA for availability and response times when dealing with any incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 92
You are the IT director for a small contracting firm. Your company is considering migrating to a cloud production environment.
Which service model would best fit your needs if you wanted an option that reduced the chance of vendor lock-in but also did not require the highest degree of administration by your own personnel?
- A. IaaS
- B. TanstaafL
- C. SaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 93
With software-defined networking, what aspect of networking is abstracted from the forwarding of traffic?
- A. Filtering
- B. Firewalling
- C. Routing
- D. Session
Answer: A
Explanation:
With software-defined networking (SDN), the filtering of network traffic is separated from the forwarding of network traffic so that it can be independently administered.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:
- A. Initiate enhanced security controls
- B. Prevent new logins
- C. Remove all active production instances
- D. Ensure logging continues
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
While the other answers are all steps in moving from normal operations to maintenance mode, we do not necessarily initiate any enhanced security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 95
What is a serious complication an organization faces from the perspective of compliance with international operations?
- A. Different capabilities
- B. Different certifications
- C. Multiple jurisdictions
- D. Different operational procedures
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When operating within a global framework, a security professional runs into a multitude of jurisdictions and requirements, and many times they might be in contention with one other or not clearly applicable. These requirements can include the location of the users and the type of data they enter into systems, the laws governing the organization that owns the application and any regulatory requirements they may have, as well as the appropriate laws and regulations for the jurisdiction housing the IT resources and where the data is actually stored, which might be multiple jurisdictions as well.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Clustered systems can be used to ensure high availability and load balancing across individual systems through a variety of methodologies.
What process is used within a clustered system to ensure proper load balancing and to maintain the health of the overall system to provide high availability?
- A. Distributed resource scheduling
- B. Distributed optimization
- C. Distributed balancing
- D. Distributed clustering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Distributed resource scheduling (DRS) is used within all clustered systems as the method for providing high availability, scaling, management, workload distribution, and the balancing of jobs and processes. None of the other choices is the correct term in this case.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Of the following, which is probably the most significant risk in a managed cloud environment?
Response:
- A. Guest escape
- B. Management plane breach
- C. DDoS
- D. Physical attack on the utility service lines
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 98
Your organization is considering a move to a cloud environment and is looking for certifications or audit reports from cloud providers to ensure adequate security controls and processes.
Which of the following is NOT a security certification or audit report that would be pertinent?
Response:
- A. SOC Type 2
- B. FIPS 140-2
- C. PCI DSS
- D. FedRAMP
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following would be considered an example of insufficient due diligence leading to security or operational problems when moving to a cloud?
- A. Programming languages used
- B. Reliance on physical network controls
- C. Monitoring
- D. Use of a remote key management system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Many organizations in a traditional data center make heavy use of physical network controls for security.
Although this is a perfectly acceptable best practice in a traditional data center, this reliance is not something that will port to a cloud environment. The failure of an organization to properly understand and adapt to the difference in network controls when moving to a cloud will likely leave an application with security holes and vulnerabilities. The use of a remote key management system, monitoring, or certain programming languages would not constitute insufficient due diligence by itself.
NEW QUESTION # 100
What concept does the "T" represent in the STRIDE threat model?
- A. TLS
- B. Tampering with data
- C. Testing
- D. Transport
Answer: B
Explanation:
Any application that sends data to the user will face the potential that the user could manipulate or alter the data, whether it resides in cookies, GET or POST commands, or headers, or manipulates client-side validations. If the user receives data from the application, it is crucial that the application validate and verify any data that is received back from the user.
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following is considered a technological control?
- A. Fire extinguisher
- B. Fireproof safe
- C. Firing personnel
- D. Firewall software
Answer: D
Explanation:
A firewall is a technological control. The safe and extinguisher are physical controls and firing someone is an administrative control.
NEW QUESTION # 102
For performance purposes, OS monitoring should include all of the following except:
- A. Disk I/O usage
- B. CPU usage
- C. Print spooling
- D. Disk space
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Print spooling is not a metric for system performance; all the rest are.
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following is the correct name for Tier II of the Uptime Institute Data Center Site Infrastructure Tier Standard Topology?
Response:
- A. Redundant Site Infrastructure Capacity Components
- B. Concurrently Maintainable Site Infrastructure
- C. Basic Site Infrastructure
- D. Fault-Tolerant Site Infrastructure
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following are attributes of cloud computing?
- A. Limited access and service provider interaction
- B. High cost and unique resources
- C. Minimal management effort and shared resources
- D. Rapid provisioning and slow release of resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the same system or application, for security reasons?
- A. Pooling
- B. Cell blocking
- C. Fencing
- D. Sandboxing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Sandboxing involves the segregation and isolation of information or processes from other information or processes within the same system or application, typically for security concerns. Sandboxing is generally used for data isolation (for example, keeping different communities and populations of users isolated from others with similar data). In IT terminology, pooling typically means bringing together and consolidating resources or services, not segregating or separating them. Cell blocking and fencing are both erroneous terms.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following represents a control on the maximum amount of resources that a single customer, virtual machine, or application can consume within a cloud environment?
- A. Share
- B. Limit
- C. Reservation
- D. Provision
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Limits are put in place to enforce a maximum on the amount of memory or processing a cloud customer can use. This can be done either on a virtual machine or as a comprehensive whole for a customer, and is meant to ensure that enormous cloud resources cannot be allocated or consumed by a single host or customer to the detriment of other hosts and customers.
NEW QUESTION # 107
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